1) single out one substantive claim in Kant’s “Religion within the Boundaries of Mere Reason” which sheds significant light on a significant claim in Kant’s “Groundwork of the Metaphysic of Morals”
2) give an exposition of the meaning of the relevant claim in Kant’s “Religion…”, and explain how it sheds light on the significant claim in Kant’s “Groundwork…”,
3) subject the relevant claim to rigorous philosophical scrutiny. (Is it plausible? What objections may be levelled against it? Can these objections be overcome? Is the claim absurd? Why? What are your arguments? Is there any problems in your position? etc.)