The mean is the most frequently reported measure of central tendency for interval-ratio variables. Why can we NOT assume that for an interval-ratio variable, 50% of cases are above the mean and 50% are below the mean? Give an example from criminology or criminal justice other than those given in the text or lecture. If the distribution is trimodal, is it possible for 50% of cases to be above and 50% below them mean? Explain your reasoning, giving examples as appropriate.
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