Q1. A 65-year-old female presents to the Emergency Department with new-onset headache, neck stiffness and vomiting. On examination she has a fever of 39.5oC, heart rate of 120 beats per minute and a blood pressure of 85/50 mmHG. She is photophobic and is Kernig’s sign positive. She has no localising neurological signs and has no evidence of a rash. Her background medical history is significant for daily alcohol excess and type two diabetes mellitus. Sepsis secondary to bacterial meningitis is suspected.
A. List three important bacterial causes of this condition in adults (only your first three will be assessed). For each organism, explain why it is likely or unlikely to be the pathogen in this patient.
B. Describe the most appropriate empiric antimicrobial therapy for this patient and the rationale behind your choice.
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